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000-735 practice exam covers all the practice test objectives to pass 000-735 Exam. It includes 000-735 Braindumps, As well Questions & Answers, Realistic Practice Labs, and Interactive Testing Engine.
The 000-735 exam
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Questions: 99:Q&As
Updated: 2008-12-29
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Part I Network Security Concepts 3
Chapter 1 Understanding Network Security Principles 5
“Do I Know This Already?” Quiz 5
Foundation Topics 9
Exploring Security Fundamentals 9
Why Network Security Is a Necessity 9
Types of Threats 9
Scope of the Challenge 10
Nonsecured Custom Applications 11
The Three Primary Goals of Network Security 12
Confidentiality 12
Integrity 12
Availability 13
Categorizing Data 13
Classification Models 13
Classification Roles 15
Controls in a Security Solution 16
Responding to a Security Incident 17
Legal and Ethical Ramifications 18
Legal Issues to Consider 19
Understanding the Methods of Network Attacks 20
Vulnerabilities 20
Potential Attackers 21
The Mind-set of a Hacker 23
Defense in Depth 24
Understanding IP Spoofing 27
Launching a Remote IP Spoofing Attack with IP Source Routing 28
Launching a Local IP Spoofing Attack Using a Man-in-the-Middle Attack 29
Protecting Against an IP Spoofing Attack 30
Understanding Confidentiality Attacks 31
Understanding Integrity Attacks 33
Understanding Availability Attacks 36
Best-Practice Recommendations 40
Exam Preparation Tasks 41
Review All the Key Topics 41
Complete the Tables and Lists from Memory 42
Definition of Key Terms 42
ix
Chapter 2 Developing a Secure Network 45
“Do I Know This Already?” Quiz 45
Foundation Topics 49
Increasing Operations Security 49
System Development Life Cycle 49
Initiation 49
Acquisition and Development 49
Implementation 50
Operations and Maintenance 50
Disposition 51
Operations Security Overview 51
Evaluating Network Security 52
Nmap 54
Disaster Recovery Considerations 55
Types of Disruptions 56
Types of Backup Sites 56
Constructing a Comprehensive Network Security Policy 57
Security Policy Fundamentals 57
Security Policy Components 58
Governing Policy 58
Technical Policies 58
End-User Policies 59
More-Detailed Documents 59
Security Policy Responsibilities 59
Risk Analysis, Management, and Avoidance 60
Quantitative Analysis 60
Qualitative Analysis 61
Risk Analysis Benefits 61
Risk Analysis Example: Threat Identification 61
Managing and Avoiding Risk 62
Factors Contributing to a Secure Network Design 62
Design Assumptions 63
Minimizing Privileges 63
Simplicity Versus Complexity 64
User Awareness and Training 64
Creating a Cisco Self-Defending Network 66
Evolving Security Threats 66
Constructing a Cisco Self-Defending Network 67
Cisco Security Management Suite 69
Cisco Integrated Security Products 70
Exam Preparation Tasks 74
Review All the Key Topics 74
x
Complete the Tables and Lists from Memory 75
Definition of Key Terms 75
Chapter 3 Defending the Perimeter 77
“Do I Know This Already?” Quiz 77
Foundation Topics 81
ISR Overview and Providing Secure Administrative Access 81
IOS Security Features 81
Cisco Integrated Services Routers 81
Cisco 800 Series 82
Cisco 1800 Series 83
Cisco 2800 Series 84
Cisco 3800 Series 84
ISR Enhanced Features 85
Password-Protecting a Router 86
Limiting the Number of Failed Login Attempts 92
Setting a Login Inactivity Timer 92
Configuring Privilege Levels 93
Creating Command-Line Interface Views 93
Protecting Router Files 95
Enabling Cisco IOS Login Enhancements for Virtual Connections 96
Creating a Banner Message 98
Cisco Security Device Manager Overview 99
Introducing SDM 99
Preparing to Launch Cisco SDM 101
Exploring the Cisco SDM Interface 102
Exam Preparation Tasks 106
Review All the Key Topics 106
Complete the Tables and Lists from Memory 106
Definition of Key Terms 106
Command Reference to Check Your Memory 107
Chapter 4 Configuring AAA 111
“Do I Know This Already?” Quiz 111
Foundation Topics 115
Configuring AAA Using the Local User Database 115
Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting 115
AAA for Cisco Routers 115
Router Access Authentication 116
Using AAA to Configure Local User Database Authentication 117
Defining a Method List 119
Setting AAA Authentication for Login 120
Configuring AAA Authentication on Serial Interfaces Running PPP 121
Using the aaa authentication enable default Command 122
xi
Implementing the aaa authorization Command 122
Working with the aaa accounting Command 124
Using the CLI to Troubleshoot AAA for Cisco Routers 126
Using Cisco SDM to Configure AAA 127
Configuring AAA Using Cisco Secure ACS 128
Overview of Cisco Secure ACS for Windows 129
Additional Features of Cisco Secure ACS 4.0 for Windows 130
Cisco Secure ACS 4.0 for Windows Installation 132
Overview of TACACS+ and RADIUS 137
TACACS+ Authentication 138
Command Authorization with TACACS+ 140
TACACS+ Attributes 140
Authentication and Authorization with RADIUS 141
RADIUS Message Types 142
RADIUS Attributes 142
Features of RADIUS 143
Configuring TACACS+ 144
Using the CLI to Configure AAA Login Authentication on Cisco Routers 144
Configuring Cisco Routers to Use TACACS+ Using the Cisco SDM 146
Defining the AAA Servers 147
Exam Preparation Tasks 149
Review All the Key Topics 149
Complete the Tables and Lists from Memory 150
Definition of Key Terms 150
Command Reference to Check Your Memory 150
Chapter 5 Securing the Router 155
“Do I Know This Already?” Quiz 155
Foundation Topics 158
Locking Down the Router 158
Identifying Potentially Vulnerable Router Interfaces and Services 158
Locking Down a Cisco IOS Router 160
AutoSecure 161
Cisco SDM One-Step Lockdown 166
Using Secure Management and Reporting 171
Planning for Secure Management and Reporting 172
Secure Management and Reporting Architecture 172
Configuring Syslog Support 175
Securing Management Traffic with SNMPv3 179
Enabling Secure Shell on a Router 183
Using Cisco SDM to Configure Management Features 185
Configuring Syslog Logging with Cisco SDM 186
Configuring SNMP with Cisco SDM 190
Configuring NTP with Cisco SDM 194
Configuring SSH with Cisco SDM 196
xii
Exam Preparation Tasks 201
Review All the Key Topics 201
Complete the Tables and Lists from Memory 201
Definition of Key Terms 202
Command Reference to Check Your Memory 202
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5. Which three statements correctly describe the GET VPN policy management? (Choose three.)
A. A central policy is defined at the ACS (AAA) server.
B. A local policy is defined on each group member.
C. A global policy is defined on the key server, and it is distributed to the group members.
D. The key server and group member policy must match.
E. The group member appends the global policy to its local policy.
Answer: BCE
6. The CPU and Memory Threshold Notifications of the Network Foundation Protection feature protects which
router plane?
A. control plane
B. management plane
C. data plane
D. network plane
Answer: B
7. In DMVPN, the NHRP process allows which requirement to be met?
A. dynamic physical interface IP address at the spoke routers
B. high-availability DMVPN designs
C. dynamic spoke-to-spoke on-demand tunnels
D. dynamic routing over the DMVPN
E. dual DMVPN hub designs
Answer: A
8. Which is correct regarding the Management Plane Protection feature?
A. By default, Management Plane Protection is enabled on all interfaces.
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B. Management Plane Protection provides for a default management interface.
C. Only SSH and SNMP management will be allowed on nondesignated management interfaces.
D. All incoming packets through the management interface are dropped except for those from the allowed
management protocols.
Answer: D
9. What are the two enrollment options when using the SDM Certificate Enrollment wizard? (Choose two.)
A. SCEP
B. LDAP
C. OCSP
D. Cut-and-Paste/Import from PC
Answer: AD
10. Refer to the exhibit.
Which two configuration commands are used to apply an inspect policy map for traffic traversing from the E0 or
E1 interface to the S3 interface? (Choose two.)
A. zone-pair security test source Z1 destination Z2
B. interface E0
C. policy-map myfwpolicy
class class-default
inspect
D. ip inspect myfwpolicy out
E. ip inspect myfwpolicy in
F. service-policy type inspect myfwpolicy
Answer: AF
15. What information is displayed by the query process command?
A.an estimated completion time for each process
B.the process numbers of all the processes running on the server
C.the parent process of each process currently running on the server
D.the IBM Tivoli Storage Manager (TSM) administrator who started each process on the server
Answer: B
16. Which command provides information and statistics on a storage pool backup including primary pool,
bytes backed up, unreadable files, unreadable bytes, and current output volume?
A.query backup
B.query process
C.query clientstatus all
D.query client node=
Answer: B
17. What information is displayed in response to a query mount command?
A.a list of tape drives available for use
B.tape drive and volume serial number
C.a list of volumes awaiting operator intervention
D.a count of tape mount failures in the previous interval
Answer: B
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18. Why would an operator issue the query mount command?
A.to determine if a tape has damaged blocks
B.to determine how much of a tape has been used
C.to determine the volume serial number of the tape in a drive
D.to determine how to move a tape and to which tape drive to move it
Answer: C
19. What happens when an operator accidentally attempts to check in a tape used for valid data with a
status of scratch?
A.The information on the tape will be overwritten.
B.The tape is checked in with its status set to private.
C.The tape is not checked in, and no data are overwritten.
D.The operation will fail because the Write Protect tab is set.
Answer: C
20. Which statement is true about a scratch volume?
A.It is not in a storage pool.
B.It does have its Write Protect tab set.
C.It does not have its Write Protect tab set.
D.It has TSM00001 written to the header of block 1.
Answer: A
1. A customer has a requirement to reduce the costs of their off-site vaulting. The customer wants to eliminate
costs associated with the manual labor of moving tapes with secure data to a second site.
How can Tivoli Storage Manager (TSM) V5.5 best meet the customers requirement?
A. by using electronic vaulting of the TSM data
B. by creating the secondary tapes and leaving them on-site
C. by using a hardware disk solution to mirror the client data to the remote location
D. by using TSM to restore the data that was backed up in the primary site to the secondary site
Answer: A
2. A customer has the following requirements: use of the existing AIX TSM server instance, nightly backups,
seven Exchange servers, three UNIX servers, four terabytes total data, 10% nightly change, and 30% annual
growth.
You have been asked to recommend the appropriate Tivoli Storage Manager (TSM) V5.5 software environment to
meet these requirements.
Which two TSM components are required? (Choose two.)
A. TSM for Mail
B. TSM for SharePoint
C. TSM Extended Edition
D. TSM for Space Management
E. TSM for System Backup and Recovery
Answer: AC
3. A Tivoli Storage Manager (TSM) V5.5 client has been successfully installed on a Windows 2003 server. The
administrator has configured Logical Volume Snapshot Agent (LVSA) function for Open File Support (OFS)
through the wizard. The customer has the following requirements:
The Windows 2003 server must use VSS (Volume Shadowcopy Services).
Drive C: must be processed with OFS.
Drive D: must not be processed with OFS.
Which options must be defined in the dsm.opt file to meet these requirements?
A. include.fs c: snapshotproviderfs=vss
include.fs d: snapshotproviderfs=none
B. include.fs c: snapshotproviderfs=yes
include.fs d: snapshotproviderfs=none
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C. include.fs c: imagetype=dynamic
include.fs d: imagetype=static
D. include.fs c: snapshotproviderfs=dynamic
Answer: A
4. What is a limitation of the Tivoli Storage Manager (TSM) Operational Reporting stand alone package?
A. Web link summary options are not available to check operational reports about the server.
B. The stand alone package does not support TSM servers running on non-Windows platforms.
C. If a TSM server requires attention, the message may not provide a recommendation for getting it running again.
D. If you install the stand alone version and later decide to install the TSM server on Windows, you must first
uninstall the stand alone console.
Answer: D
5. Which installation authority is required to install the Tivoli Integrated Solutions Console on the AIX platform?
A. bin user
B. root user
C. non-root user
D. administrative user
Answer: B
6. How can you stop the distribution of a profile from the configuration manager to the managed system?
A. delete profileassociation on the configuration manager for the target managed system
B. delete subscription issued on the configuration manager for the target managed system
C. delete subscription for the configuration manager issued on the target managed system
D. delete profilesubscription for the configuration manager issued on the managed system
Answer: C
7. What is the correct sequence of daily actions required for a Disaster Recovery Manager (DRM) plan to be
valid?
A. 1. back up client files
2. back up the primary storage pools
3. back up the database (for example, a database snapshot backup)
4. move the disaster recovery media using the move DRMedia command
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5. generate the Disaster Recovery Plan
6. send the backup volumes and Disaster Recovery Plan file to the vault
B. 1. back up the database (for example, a database snapshot backup)
2. back up client files
3. back up the primary storage pools
4. move the disaster recovery media using the move DRMedia command
5. send the backup volumes and Disaster Recovery Plan file to the vault
6. generate the Disaster Recovery Plan
C. 1. back up client files
2. back up the primary storage pools
3. back up the database (for example, a database snapshot backup)
4. generate the Disaster Recovery Plan
5. move the disaster recovery media using the move DRMedia command
6. send the backup volumes and Disaster Recovery Plan file to the vault
D. 1. back up client files
Answer: A
8. Which two options can be used in the backup-archive client option files for Windows and AIX to specify the
location for the storage of the encryption key? (Choose two.)
A. passworddir
B. securelocation
C. passwordlocation
D. encryptkeylocation
E. encryptkey generate
Answer: AE
9. A companys objectives for data storage are to have a copy of data on-site and a copy of data off-site, as well as
to ensure quick restore times of data.
Which storage pool configuration should you use to meet these objectives?
A. random access primary storage pool, sequential LTO copy storage pool, sequential FILE active-data pool
B. random access primary storage pool, sequential LTO primary storage pool, sequential LTO copy storage pool
C. sequential FILE primary storage pool, sequential LTO primary storage pool, sequential LTO copy storage pool
D. sequential File primary storage pool, sequential LTO primary storage pool, sequential FILE copy storage pool
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Answer: A
10. What does the MIGDELAY attribute of a storage pool do?
A. specifies the maximum number of days the migration process can run continually
B. specifies a delay in days where the migration process remains paused when the MIGMAX threshold is reached
C. specifies the minimum number of days a file must remain in a storage pool before it becomes eligible for
migration
D. specifies the maximum number of days a file can remain in a storage pool before an immediate migration is
forced for this file
Answer: C
11. As a Tivoli Storage Manager (TSM) administrator, you have configured a Disaster Recovery Plan using the
disaster recovery manager (DRM) function of TSM.
When faced with the need to perform a recovery, where do you locate the information on the type of devices
needed to restore the TSM database and client data?
A. recovery plan file
B. volume history file
C. TSM Administrator’s Guide
D. Query drmedia command output
Answer: A
12. What is the result of issuing the command set access backup /Users/user3/proja/ nodeB from the Tivoli
Storage Manager (TSM) client CLI for the TSM client of serverA?
A. It allows the TSM client nodeB to access the database records of serverA.
B. It gives nodeB the authority to restore all files in the /Users/user3/proja directory.
C. It permits the TSM client nodeB to backup any file in the path /Users/user3/proja/ on serverA.
D. It allows the TSM client nodeB to access the Tivoli Storage Manager (TSM) client on serverA remotely.
Answer: B
13. How can a Tivoli Storage Manager (TSM) administrator ensure that there is sufficient free space in the
primary storage pools?
A. by using a scheduled task to migrate the primary storage pools automatically
B. by deleting primary storage pools regularly using administrative scheduling
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C. by scheduling a daily migration of the TSM server activity log, so the database does not consume space
D. by asking the TSM backup archive user to use journal based backup or subfile backups instead of incremental
or full backups
Answer: A
14. Which command should you use to review the status of the administrative scheduled tasks?
A. query event * type=administrative
B. query schedule * type=administrative
C. query actlog search=admin begintime=-1
D. actlog schedule all type=administrative
Answer: A
15. A customer wants to retain the last backup of a file that has been deleted.
Which policy setting do they need to have configured in their environment?
A. Retain=On
B. Retain=Yes
C. Retain Last Version
D. Retain Only Version
Answer: D
16. A new management team informs you that they have new Service Level Agreements. The team would like to
review the current retention settings, such as how many versions there are and how long certain files are kept.
How is this accomplished?
A. Query Ret f=d
B. Query Copy f=d
C. Query Mgmt f=d
D. Query Policy f=d
Answer: B
17. A customer needs to increase the extra inactive versions of data they keep.
Which policy setting do they need to modify in order to satisfy their new service level agreement?
A. Versions Data Exists
B. Retain Extra Versions
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C. Retain Active Versions
D. Retain Inactive Versions
Answer: A
18. A customer is having problems with certain servers backing up several times per day. They need to limit the
number of times a file is backed up to a maximum of one time per day.
Which option is best used accomplish this within IBM Tivoli Storage Manager (TSM)?
A. with File Frequency
B. with Copy Frequency
C. with Image Frequency
D. with Backup Frequency
Answer: B
19. When should compression of client data be considered on the Tivoli Storage Manager (TSM) client to reduce
backup times?
A. when backing up highly compressible database data
B. when backing up more than 1 GB of data each day from the TSM client
C. when backing up data that will be retained for an extended period of time
D. when network bandwidth constraints exist between the TSM client and TSM server
Answer: D
20. When is implementation of LAN-free backup recommended?
A. when excess storage capacity exists on the SAN
B. when backing up client systems, which contain sensitive information
C. when the need to offload backup traffic from the LAN to the SAN exists
D. when there are client systems with a large number of small files to back up
Answer: C
Question & Answer Features
The 000-433 Question & Answer is a comprehensive disection of the kinds of questions and fields you can expect during the real exam.
000-433 Questions and Answers as well as our other 000-433 exam training tools are not only priced to be easy on your budget - but each one is also backed with our guarantee. Pass4Side guarantees that after using our IBM certification training tools, you will be prepared to take and pass your IBM certifications III exam.
1. A customer has a requirement to reduce the costs of their off-site vaulting. The customer wants to eliminate
costs associated with the manual labor of moving tapes with secure data to a second site.
How can Tivoli Storage Manager (TSM) V5.5 best meet the customers requirement?
A. by using electronic vaulting of the TSM data
B. by creating the secondary tapes and leaving them on-site
C. by using a hardware disk solution to mirror the client data to the remote location
D. by using TSM to restore the data that was backed up in the primary site to the secondary site
Answer: A
2. A customer has the following requirements: use of the existing AIX TSM server instance, nightly backups,
seven Exchange servers, three UNIX servers, four terabytes total data, 10% nightly change, and 30% annual
growth.
You have been asked to recommend the appropriate Tivoli Storage Manager (TSM) V5.5 software environment to
meet these requirements.
Which two TSM components are required? (Choose two.)
A. TSM for Mail
B. TSM for SharePoint
C. TSM Extended Edition
D. TSM for Space Management
E. TSM for System Backup and Recovery
Answer: AC
3. A Tivoli Storage Manager (TSM) V5.5 client has been successfully installed on a Windows 2003 server. The
administrator has configured Logical Volume Snapshot Agent (LVSA) function for Open File Support (OFS)
through the wizard. The customer has the following requirements:
The Windows 2003 server must use VSS (Volume Shadowcopy Services).
Drive C: must be processed with OFS.
Drive D: must not be processed with OFS.
Which options must be defined in the dsm.opt file to meet these requirements?
A. include.fs c: snapshotproviderfs=vss
include.fs d: snapshotproviderfs=none
B. include.fs c: snapshotproviderfs=yes
include.fs d: snapshotproviderfs=none
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C. include.fs c: imagetype=dynamic
include.fs d: imagetype=static
D. include.fs c: snapshotproviderfs=dynamic
Answer: A
4. What is a limitation of the Tivoli Storage Manager (TSM) Operational Reporting stand alone package?
A. Web link summary options are not available to check operational reports about the server.
B. The stand alone package does not support TSM servers running on non-Windows platforms.
C. If a TSM server requires attention, the message may not provide a recommendation for getting it running again.
D. If you install the stand alone version and later decide to install the TSM server on Windows, you must first
uninstall the stand alone console.
Answer: D
5. Which installation authority is required to install the Tivoli Integrated Solutions Console on the AIX platform?
A. bin user
B. root user
C. non-root user
D. administrative user
Answer: B
6. How can you stop the distribution of a profile from the configuration manager to the managed system?
A. delete profileassociation on the configuration manager for the target managed system
B. delete subscription issued on the configuration manager for the target managed system
C. delete subscription for the configuration manager issued on the target managed system
D. delete profilesubscription for the configuration manager issued on the managed system
Answer: C
7. What is the correct sequence of daily actions required for a Disaster Recovery Manager (DRM) plan to be
valid?
A. 1. back up client files
2. back up the primary storage pools
3. back up the database (for example, a database snapshot backup)
4. move the disaster recovery media using the move DRMedia command
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5. generate the Disaster Recovery Plan
6. send the backup volumes and Disaster Recovery Plan file to the vault
B. 1. back up the database (for example, a database snapshot backup)
2. back up client files
3. back up the primary storage pools
4. move the disaster recovery media using the move DRMedia command
5. send the backup volumes and Disaster Recovery Plan file to the vault
6. generate the Disaster Recovery Plan
C. 1. back up client files
2. back up the primary storage pools
3. back up the database (for example, a database snapshot backup)
4. generate the Disaster Recovery Plan
5. move the disaster recovery media using the move DRMedia command
6. send the backup volumes and Disaster Recovery Plan file to the vault
D. 1. back up client files
Answer: A
8. Which two options can be used in the backup-archive client option files for Windows and AIX to specify the
location for the storage of the encryption key? (Choose two.)
A. passworddir
B. securelocation
C. passwordlocation
D. encryptkeylocation
E. encryptkey generate
Answer: AE
9. A companys objectives for data storage are to have a copy of data on-site and a copy of data off-site, as well as
to ensure quick restore times of data.
Which storage pool configuration should you use to meet these objectives?
A. random access primary storage pool, sequential LTO copy storage pool, sequential FILE active-data pool
B. random access primary storage pool, sequential LTO primary storage pool, sequential LTO copy storage pool
C. sequential FILE primary storage pool, sequential LTO primary storage pool, sequential LTO copy storage pool
D. sequential File primary storage pool, sequential LTO primary storage pool, sequential FILE copy storage pool
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Answer: A
10. What does the MIGDELAY attribute of a storage pool do?
A. specifies the maximum number of days the migration process can run continually
B. specifies a delay in days where the migration process remains paused when the MIGMAX threshold is reached
C. specifies the minimum number of days a file must remain in a storage pool before it becomes eligible for
migration
D. specifies the maximum number of days a file can remain in a storage pool before an immediate migration is
forced for this file
Answer: C
12. While reviewing the Daily Report, you find a scheduled restore job missed the allocated scheduled
window.
Which two actions should be taken to determine the cause? (Choose two.)
A.check to see if the file was backed up
B.check to see if the storage pools are full
C.check to see if any scratch tapes are available
D.check to see if the client scheduler service is running on the client
E.check the Activity Log to identify what was happening during the scheduled period
Answer: DE
13. Which command is issued to determine which client backups are running?
A.query node
B.query backups
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C.query process
D.query session
Answer: D
14. In IBM Tivoli Storage Manager (TSM), what information does the query session command provide?
A.start times for client sessions
B.clients that are communicating with the TSM server
C.Client Options that are being used by the TSM server
D.how much data needs to be backed up to the TSM server
Answer: B
15. What information is displayed by the query process command?
A.an estimated completion time for each process
B.the process numbers of all the processes running on the server
C.the parent process of each process currently running on the server
D.the IBM Tivoli Storage Manager (TSM) administrator who started each process on the server
Answer: B
16. Which command provides information and statistics on a storage pool backup including primary pool,
bytes backed up, unreadable files, unreadable bytes, and current output volume?
A.query backup
B.query process
C.query clientstatus all
D.query client node=
Answer: B
17. What information is displayed in response to a query mount command?
A.a list of tape drives available for use
B.tape drive and volume serial number
C.a list of volumes awaiting operator intervention
D.a count of tape mount failures in the previous interval
Answer: B
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18. Why would an operator issue the query mount command?
A.to determine if a tape has damaged blocks
B.to determine how much of a tape has been used
C.to determine the volume serial number of the tape in a drive
D.to determine how to move a tape and to which tape drive to move it
Answer: C
19. What happens when an operator accidentally attempts to check in a tape used for valid data with a
status of scratch?
A.The information on the tape will be overwritten.
B.The tape is checked in with its status set to private.
C.The tape is not checked in, and no data are overwritten.
D.The operation will fail because the Write Protect tab is set.
Answer: C
20. Which statement is true about a scratch volume?
A.It is not in a storage pool.
B.It does have its Write Protect tab set.
C.It does not have its Write Protect tab set.
D.It has TSM00001 written to the header of block 1.
Answer: A
